Kaimi
asks whether it's hypocritical for the Church to oppose same-sex marriage on a 'marriage = one man and one woman' basis, given its polygamous history.
Is it contradictory to oppose gay marriage while allowing (in principle) for polygamy? Not at all:
polygamy does not, in fact, violate the 'marriage = one man and one woman' principle.
The reason is simple: a man with two wives does not have
one marriage to two women, he has
two marriages, both to one woman each.
This is not a defense of polygamy, certainly, but there's no contradiction here: a man with two wives has two independent marriages that have no direct relationship with each other. One wife passing away, or divorcing her husband, has no effect on the relationship between the husband and any other wife--they are separate entities. (Compare to one guy being the drummer in two different rock bands at the same time. One of the bands breaking up has basically no effect on the other band, other than potentially freeing up more time for the common member...)
Thus, Church members can oppose same-sex marriage using a 'marriage = one man and one woman' mantra without being hypocritical (even ignoring the obvious fact that most Church members don't support polygamy today, either...)